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It seems odd that we never appear to access the last element in a1 and a2 in these integral approximations. This seems consistent with the code in the original paper:
It seems odd that we never appear to access the last element in
a1
anda2
in these integral approximations. This seems consistent with the code in the original paper:https://articles.adsabs.harvard.edu/pdf/1993ApJS...84..101A
but we should double check things to make sure we are correct. It should be possible to just do the Fermi integrals and compare to the approximation.
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